Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions:
The main difference between urban growth in Europe and in the American colonies was the slow evolution of cities in the former and their rapid growth in the latter. In Europe they grew over a period of centuries from town economies to their present urban structure. In North America, they started as wilderness communities and developed to mature urbanism’s in little more than a century.
In the early colonial day in North America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic Coastline, mostly in what are now New America, small cities sprang up along the Atlantic United States and in the lower Saint Lawrence valley in Canada. This was natural because these areas were nearest England and France, particularly England, from which most capital goods (assets such as equipment) and many consumer goods were imported Merchandising establishments were, accordingly, advantageously located in port cities from which goods could be readily distributed to interior settlements. Here, too, were the favored locations for processing raw materials prior to export. Boston, Philadelphia, New York, Montreal, and other cities flourished, and, as the colonies grew, these cities increased in importance.
This was less true in the colonial South, where life centered around large farms, known as plantations, rather than around towns, as was the case in the areas further north along the Atlantic coastline. The local isolation and the economic self-sufficiency of the plantations were antagonistic to the development of the towns. The plantations maintained their independence because they were located on navigable streams and each had a wharf accessible to the small shipping of that day. In fact, one of the strongest factors in the selection of plantation land was the desire to have it front on a water highway.
When the United States became an independent nation in 1776, it did not have a single city as large as 50,000 inhabitants, but by 1820 it had a city of more than 10,000 people, and by 1880 it had recorded a city of over one million. It was not until after 1823, after the mechanization of the spinning and weaving industries, that cities started drawing young people away from farms. Such migration was particularly rapid following the Civil War (1861-1865).

According to the passage, early colonial cities were established along the Atlantic coastline of North America due to

Choose the option A, B, C or D that best answers the question about the passage:

"Students must apply for a place before attending any class. Applications, whether by post or in persons, are dealt with strictly in the order they are received at the Adult Education Office. You can apply:

 + By post: use the card provided with the exact fee. You will be accepted on the course unless it is full, in which case we will inform you. An acknowledgement will not be made nor a receipt sent unless you provide a stamped addressed envelope. Receipts will normally be given out at the first class.
 + In person: Call at the Adult Education Office (ground floor, Block C) between approximately 9.00 am and 3.30 pm (2.30 pm on Fridays) or at the College Reception Desk (at the main entrance) at other times (in the evenings until about 7.30 pm, not on Fridays).
 Students should note that popular classes may be full well before the course is due to start, so early application is strongly advised to avoid disappointment.
 => For the autumn term, applications will be accepted by post or in person from 1st August.
=> For the spring term, applications will be accepted from 1st December.
=> For the summer term, applications will be accepted from 1st April."

3. Where can students apply in person?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions:
Did you ever watch a video on the Internet? Maybe you used YouTube. YouTube is a Website where people can share their video. Today, YouTube is an important part of the Internet. However, that wasn’t always true.
YouTube started with a young man named Jawed Karim and two friends. One day, Karim was on the Internet. He wanted information about the 2004 tsunami in Southeast Asia. He found news stories about it, but he couldn't find any videos. This gave Karin an idea. He wanted to help people put video on the Internet. Karim told his friends about this idea. Together, they created a company - YouTube.
YouTube become a global success. Millions of people around the world Visited the Website. It was clear to Google, another Internet company, that YouTube had a lot of value. Google made a deal. It bought YouTube for $1.65 billion. As a result, YouTube investors and its employees made a lot of money. The three friends who started YouTube were very big investors. Therefore, they made an enormous amount of money.
Karim became very rich, and he continued to work toward his PhD. There was something else he wanted to do. He wanted to help young people go into business. He used money and experience to start a new company called Youniversity Ventures. This company helps young people who have good business ideas. It gives them advice and money to start Internet businesses. Milo is one business that students started with the help of Youniversity Ventures.
Milo is a shopping Website. It helps people find products in stores near their homes. Another example is AirBoB. This Web site helps people find for video conferences. People in different places can use this site to have business meetings.
Karim has some advice for students who want to start business. First, find a successful company. Do a lot of research about the company and the top people in the company. There, copy the way they do things. For students who wants to start Interner business, Karim is probably a very good example to copy. 

Which of the following can replace the word “enormous” in paragraph 4?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

   For centuries, time was measured by the position of the sun with the use of sundials. Noon was recognized when the sun was the highest in the sky, and cities would set their clock by this apparent solar time, even though some cities would often be on a slightly different time. Daylight Saving Time (DST), sometimes called summer time, was instituted to make better use of daylight. Thus, clocks are set forward one hour in the spring to move an hour of daylight from the morning to the evening and then set back one hour in the fall to return to normal daylight.

   Benjamin Franklin first conceived the idea of daylight saving during his tenure as an American delegate in Paris in 1984 and wrote about it extensively in his essay, "An Economical Project." It is said that Franklin awoke early one morning and was surprised to see the sunlight at such an hour. Always the economist, Franklin believed the practice of moving the time could save on the use of candlelight, as candles were expensive at the time.

   In England, builder William Willett (1857–1915) became a strong supporter for Daylight Saving Time upon noticing blinds of many houses were closed on an early sunny morning. Willet believed everyone, including himself, would appreciate longer hours of light in the evenings. In 1909, Sir Robert Pearce introduced a bill in the House of Commons to make it obligatory to adjust the clocks. A bill was drafted and introduced into Parliament several times but met with great opposition, mostly from farmers. Eventually, in 1925, it was decided that summer time should begin on the day following the third Saturday in April and close after the first Saturday in October.

   The U.S. Congress passed the Standard Time Act of 1918 to establish standard time and preserve and set Daylight Saving Time across the continent. This act also devised five time zones throughout the United States: Eastern, Central, Mountain, Pacific, and Alaska. The first time zone was set on "the mean astronomical time of the seventy-fifth degree of longitude west from Greenwich" (England). In 1919, this act was repealed.

   President Roosevelt established year-round Daylight Saving Time (also called War Time) from 1942–1945. However, after this period, each state adopted its own DST, which proved to be disconcerting to television and radio broadcasting and transportation. In 1966, President Lyndon Johnson created the Department of Transportation and signed the Uniform Time Act. As a result, the Department of Transportation was given the responsibility for the time laws. During the oil embargo and energy crisis of the 1970s, President Richard Nixon extended DST through the Daylight Saving Time Energy Act of 1973 to conserve energy further. This law was modified in 1986, and Daylight Saving Time was reset to begin on the first Sunday in April (to spring ahead) and end on the last Sunday in October (to fall back).

The word “obligatory” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions:
The development of genetically modified (GM) plants and animals had led to a huge global controversy. Opponents say that GM “Franken foods” are a threat to our well-being, and proponents say that the risks are minimal. There is one aspect of the war over GM that is often overlooked. Anyone who wears a cotton shirt these days is using a GM crop. Cotton is the only major non-food GM crop at present, but others are coming.
GM cotton plants that is not food has not stopped the most passionate GM opponents from objecting. If GM cotton is grown in a field next to fields of non-GM cotton, they argue, then how to keep genes from being transferred from field to field. This danger, however, is not as compelling to the public as possible health hazards in food, so there is no great fury over GM cotton.
GM cotton seeds produce higher yields, and they do without the need for pesticides. Planting of  GM cotton has increased five fold since 1997; three-quarter of cotton in America, and over half in China, is now GM. Farmers like it because it increases their profits.
Other options for non-food GM include new variety of flowers with different colors or scents, tougher grasses for lawns, and plants designed to soak up pollutants from the soil. The paper industry provides another example of potential for GM to help produce better and cheaper products. Paper is made from pulp, and pulp is generally made from trees. Researchers in New Zealand and Chile have been working on insect-resistant pines, and a Japanese firm has combined carrot genes with tree genes to make them grow better in poor soil.
Another interesting case is that of tobacco. It is not food crop, but it is consumed, and GM tobacco plants with both more and less nicotine have been created. The tobacco plant, however, is an ideal target for GM, since its genetics are very well understood and it produces a lot of leaves. The value of the drugs that could be produced by GM tobacco is so high, many farmers could switch from growing tobacco for cigarettes to growing it for medicine. Since medical cost is rising, consumers would also be happy to use drugs produced in bulk by GM tobacco.

Why does the author mention a cotton shirt in paragraph 1?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

“When a snow leopard stalks its prey among the mountain walls, it moves softly, slowly,” explains Indian biologist Raghunandan Singh Chundawat, who has studied the animal for years. “If it knocks a stone loose, it will reach out a foot to stop it from falling and making noise.” One might be moving right now, perfectly silent, maybe close by. But where? And how many are left to see?

Best known for its spotted coat and long distinctive tail, the snow leopard is one of the world’s most secretive animals. These elusive cats can only be found high in the remote, mountainous regions of central Asia. For this reason, and because they hunt primarily at night, they are very rarely seen.

Snow leopards have been officially protected since 1975, but enforcing this law has proven difficult. Many continue to be killed for their fur and body parts, which are worth a fortune on the black market. In recent years, though, conflict with local herders has also led to a number of snow leopard deaths. This is because the big cats kill the herders’ animals, and drag the bodies away to eat high up in the mountains.

As a result of these pressures, the current snow leopard population is estimated at only 4,000 to 7,000, and some fear that the actual number may already have dropped below 3,500. The only way to reverse this trend and bring these cats back from near extinction, say conservationists, is to make them more valuable alive than dead.

Because farming is difficult in Central Asia’s cold, dry landscape, traditional cultures depend mostly on livestock (mainly sheep and goats) to survive in these mountainous regions. At night, when snow leopards hunt, herders’ animals are in danger of snow leopard attacks. Losing only a few animals can push a family into desperate poverty. “The wolf comes and kills, eats, and goes somewhere else,” said one herder, “but snow leopards are always around. They have killed one or two animals many time. Everybody wanted to finish this leopard.”

To address this problem, local religious leaders have called for an end to snow leopard killings, saying that these wild animals have the right to exist peacefully. They’ve also tried to convince people that the leopards are quite rare and thus it is important to protect them. Financial incentives are also helping to slow snow leopard killings. The organization Snow Leopard Conservancy–India has established Himalayan Homestays, a program that sends visitors to the region to herders’ houses. For a clean room and bed, meals with the family, and an introduction to their culture, visitors pay about ten U.S. dollars a night. Having guests once every two weeks through the tourist season provides the herders with enough income to replace the animals lost to snow leopards. In addition, Homestays helps herders build protective fences that keep out snow leopards. The organization also conducts environmental classes at village schools and trains Homestays members as nature guides, available for hire. In exchange, the herders agree not to kill snow leopards.

In Mongolia, a project called Snow Leopard Enterprises (SLE) helps herder communities earn extra money in exchange for their promise to protect the endangered cat. Women in Mongolian herder communities make a variety of products—yarn for making clothes, decorative floor rugs, and toys—using the wool from their herds. SLE buys these items from herding families and sells them abroad. Herders must agree to protect the snow leopards and to encourage neighbors to do the same.

Read the passage and decide which answer A, B, C, or D best fits each space. 

The Lost Shoe

Once a poor farmer had a daughter named Little Pea. After his wife died, the farmer married again. His new wife had a daughter, Stout Nut. (1) ________, the new wife was very cruel to Little Pea. Little Pea had to do chores all day. This made Little Pea’s father very upset. He soon died (2) ______ a broken heart.

Summer came and went. In the fall, the village held its harvest festival. That year, everyone was (3) ________ as the prince wanted to choose his wife from the village. Stout Nut’s mother made new clothes for her, but poor Little Pea had none. (4) ___________, before the festival started, a fairy appeared and (5) ________ changed Little Pea’s rags into beautiful clothes.

As Little Pea ran to the festival, she dropped one of her shoes and lost it. When the prince found the shoe, he decided to marry the girl who owned it. Of course, the shoe fitted Little Pea. and the prince immediately fell in love with her.

3.That year, everyone was (3) ________ as the prince wanted to choose his wife from the village. 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions:
In ancient Greece, athletic festivals were very important and had strong religious associations. The Olympic athletic festival, held every four years in honour of Zeus, eventually lost its local character, became first a national event, and then, after the rules against foreign competitors had been abolished, international. No one knows exactly how far back the Olympic Games go, but some official records date from 776 B.C.
The Games took place in August on the plain by Mount Olympus. Many thousands of spectators gathered from all parts of Greece, but no married woman was admitted even as a spectator. Slaves, women and dishonoured people were not allowed to compete. Records show that the evening of the third day was devoted to sacrificial offerings to the heroes of the day, and the fourth day, that of the full moon, was set aside as a holy day. On the sixth and last day all the victors were crowned with holy garlands of wild olive from a sacred wood. So great was the honour that the winner of the foot race gave his name to the year of his victory. How their results compared with modern standards, we unfortunately had no means of telling.
After an uninterrupted history of almost 1,200 years, the Games were abolished in A. D. 394 because of their pagan origin. It was a great many years before there was another such international athletic gathering. The Greek institution was brought back into existence in 1896 and the first small meeting took place in Athens. After the 1908 London Olympics, success was re-established and nations sent their best representatives.
Today, the Games are held in different countries in turn. The host country provides vast facilities, including a stadium, swimming pools and living accommodation, but competing countries pay their own athletes' expenses. Athletic contests are still the main feature, but now many more sports are represented, women compete, the ancient pentathlon, for example, has been modified into a more comprehensive test, and the marathonraces, initiated in 1896, are now a celebrated event.
The Olympics start with the arrival in the stadium of a torch, lighted on Mount Olympus by the sun's rays. It is carried by a succession of runners to the stadium. The torch symbolizes the continuation of the ancient Greek athletic ideals, and it burns throughout the Games until the closing ceremony.

The modern Olympics compared with the ancient ones are     .

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
When I was at school, sports day was the highlight of the year. Let me set the scene. First of all, on sports day, it  was  always  bound (1)...... rain. Sunny weather? No such luck. Despite the previous two months of soaring temperatures, as likely as not, on the morning of the games, The temperature  would plummet. So, imagine  a hundred (2)........ small children, dressed in tight shorts and thin vests, shivering in the cold, unaware of the heartbreak that lies in store for them. Swept up by the excitement and desperate to win, tempers soon get frayed. One girl finds herself disqualified from the egg and spoon race despite giving it everything she’s got, and another boy, (3)......... jealous of the winner of the sack race, makes the mistake of being rude to him within earshot of the teachers. Scores of tiny children, bitterly disappointed at tasting defeat for the first time, break down and cry. Twenty years on, I’m certainly not (4)......... any young, but I do have some really lasting (5)............. _of those days at school!
(4)...........................

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
                     ALFRED NOBEL
Alfred Nobel was born on October 21, 1833 in Sweden. His important invention was dynamite - a powerful (1)........ _. This dynamite business made him a very rich man.
One day, Alfred Nobel read about his death in a newspaper. In fact, it was his brother's death. The mass media (2).........him a saleman of death, "The dynamite king". Nobel was very upset. He had invented dynamite to save lives - lives ( 3 )............ _ were lost because other explosives were dangerous to use. He hated violence and war. And he did not like the world to    think of him as a man of war.
He thought (4)..........the  best way for people to  use  his fortune for  years. (5)................... _  he knew  what to do with his fortune. Alfred Nobel established the Nobel Prize, an annual award to honour leaders of science, literature, and world peace. Alfred Nobel died on December 10, 1896. He was unmarried and had no children. His important decision changed the way the  world thought of him. He was remembered the way he wanted: Alfred Nobel, man of peace.

(3)..........................
 

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions:
Although management principles have been implemented since ancient times, most management scholars trace the beginning of modern management thought back to the early 19005, beginning with the pioneering work of Frederick Taylor (1856-1915) Taylor was the first person to study work scientifically. He is most famous for introducing techniques of time and motion study, differential piece rate systems, and for systemtically specializing the work of operating employees and managers. Along with other pioneers such as Frank and Lillian Gilbreth, Taylor set the stage, labeling his philosophy and methods “scientific management’. At that time, his philosophy, which was concerned with productivity, but which was often misinterpreted as promoting worker interests at the expense of management, was in marked contrast to the prevailing industrial norms of worker exploitation.
The time and motion study concepts were popularized by Frank and Lillian Gilbreth. The Gilbreths had 12 children. By analyzing his children’s dishwashing and bed making chores, this pioneer efficiency expert, Frank Gilbreth, hit on principles whereby workers could eliminate waste motion. He was memorialized by two of his children in their 1949 book called “Cheaper by the Dozen”.
The Gilbreth methods included using stop watches to time worker movements and special tools (cameras and special clocks) to monitor and study worker performance, and also involved
identification of “therbligs” (Gilbreth spelled backwards) - basic motions used in production jobs. Many of these motions and accompanying times have been used to determine how long it should take a skilled worker to perform a given job. In this way an industrial engineer can get a handle on the approximate time it should take to produce a product or provide a service. However, use of work analysis in this way is unlikely to lead to useful results unless all five work dimensions are considered. physical, psychological, social, cultural, and power.

It can be inferred from the first paragraph that     .

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrases that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Most educational specialists believe that early schooling should provide children with an (56)..........of their own abilities and the self-confidence to use their abilities. One approach recognised by many (57)........... as promoting these qualities is the Montessori method, first practised by Maria Montessori of Italy in the early 1900s. Nancy McCormick Rambusch is credited with (58)........... the method in the United States, where today there are over 400 Montessori schools.
The  method  helps  children  learn  for  themselves by (59)........ them with instructional materials and tasks that facilitate acts of discovery and manipulation. Through such exploration, children develop their sense of touch and learn (60)............ to do everyday tasks without adult assistance. Other benefits include improvement in language skills, and acquaintance with elements of science, music, and art.

(57).............................

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions:
One of the most important battles of the American Civil War occurred around the small town of Gettysburg, Pennsylvania, from July 1 to July 3, 1863. What began as a search for shoes by the Confederate Army quickly escalated into a major battle. As the Confederate soldiers sought new shoes, they unexpectedly encountered Union cavalry stationed west of the town at Willoughby Run, and the battle began. After much fighting and heavy casualties on both sides, the Confederates pushed the Union forces back through the town of Gettysburg, where they regrouped south of the town along the high ground near a cemetery.
Confederate General Robert E. Lee ordered General R.S. Ewell to seize the high ground from the battle - weary Union soldiers "if practical." Ewell hesitated in the attack, giving the Union troops a chance to establish a stronghold along Cemetery Ridge and then bring in reinforcements with artillery. By the time Lee realized Ewell had not attacked, the opportunity had vanished. Other failures by the Confederates included the generals' opposition to the attack plans and a lack of information about Union defense. This combination of errors allowed the Union forces to win a critical victory in the Civil War. By the end, a total of 160,000 men were involved in this fierce and bloody battle.

Why does the author mention that "Ewell hesitated to attack"?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions:
In the early 1800s, to reach the jump-off point for the West, a family from the East of the United States could either buy a steamboat passage to Missouri for themselves, their wagons and their livestock or, as happened more often, simply pile everything into a wagon, hitch up a team, and begin their overland trek right in their front yard.
Along the macadamized roads and turnpikes east of the Missouri River, travel was comparatively fast, camping easy, and supplies plentiful. Then, in one river town or another, the neophyte emigrants would pause to lay in provisions. For outfitting purposes, the town of Independence had been preeminent ever since 1827, but the rising momentum of pioneer emigration had produced some rival jump-off points. Westport and Fort Leavenworth flourished a few miles upriver. St. Joseph had sprung up 55 miles to the northwest; in fact, emigrants who went to Missouri by riverboat could save four days on the trail by staying on the paddle wheelers to St. Joe before striking overland.
At whatever jump-off point they chose, the emigrants studied guide books and directions, asked questions of others as green as themselves, and made their final decision about outfitting. They had various, sometimes conflicting, options. For example, either pack animals or two -wheel carts or wagons could be used for the overland crossing. A family man usually chose the wagon. It was the costliest and slowest of the three, but it provided space and shelter for children and for a wife who likely as not was pregnant. Everybody knew that a top-heavy covered wagon might blow over in a prairie wind or be overturned by mountain rocks, that it might mire in river mud or sink to its hubs in desert sand, but maybe if those things happened on this trip, they would happen to someone else. Anyway, most pioneers, with their farm background, were used to wagons.

Which of the cities that served as a jump-off point can be inferred from the passage to be farthest west?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions:
On July 16, 1969, America launched the Apollo 11, Lunar Landing Mission from Kennedy Space Center. This was a 363-foot-tall space vehicle, the five engines of which on the Saturn V rocket generated 7.5 million pounds of thrust. Twelve minutes after the launch, the astronauts were in orbit 120 miles above the Earth. At a speed of 17,400 mph, they began their four-day journey to the moon. They had nearly a quarter of a million miles to go.
On July 20, 1969, Neil Amstrong descended from the lunar module ladder. Just prior to taking his first step on the moon, Armstrong pilles on a special ring, causing a TV camera to automatically deploy. as he stepped into the moon’s surface, he proclaimed, “That’s one small step for man, one giant leap for mankind.” However, Armstrong inadvertently omitted the “a” before “man”. This error slightly changed the meaning of what was to become known as Armstrong’s famous statement.

What is the passage mainly about?

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Christina and James met in college and have been dating for more than five years. For the  past two years, they have been living together in a  condo  they  purchased jointly. While Christina and James were confident in their decision to enter into a commitment like a  20-year mortgage,  they are unsure if they want to enter into marriage. The couple had many discussions about marriage and decided that it just did not seem necessary. Wasn't it only a piece of  paper? And  didn't half of all marriages end in divorce?
Neither Christina nor James had seen much success with marriage while growing up. Christina was raised by a single mother. Her parents never married, and her father has had little contact with the family since she was a toddler, Christina and her mother lived with her maternal grandmother, who often served as a surrogate parent. James grew up in  a  two-parent household  until age seven, when his parents divorced. He lived with his mother for a  few years, and then    later with his mother and her boyfriend until he left for college. James remained close with his  father who remarried and had a baby with his new wife.
Recently, Christina and James have been thinking about having children and the subject of marriage has resurfaced. Christina likes the idea of her children growing up in a traditional  family; while James is concerned about possible marital problems down the road and negative consequences for the children should that occur. When they shared these concerns with their parents, James's mom was adamant that the couple should get married. Despite having been divorced and having a live-in boyfriend of 15  years, she believes that children are better off when  their parents are married. Christina's mom believes that the couple should do whatever they want but adds that it would "be nice" if they wed. Christina and James's friends told them, married or not married; they would still be a family.

According to the paragraph 2, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Read the passage and decide which answer A, B, C, or D best fits each space. 

The Lost Shoe

Once a poor farmer had a daughter named Little Pea. After his wife died, the farmer married again. His new wife had a daughter, Stout Nut. (1) ________, the new wife was very cruel to Little Pea. Little Pea had to do chores all day. This made Little Pea’s father very upset. He soon died (2) ______ a broken heart.

Summer came and went. In the fall, the village held its harvest festival. That year, everyone was (3) ________ as the prince wanted to choose his wife from the village. Stout Nut’s mother made new clothes for her, but poor Little Pea had none. (4) ___________, before the festival started, a fairy appeared and (5) ________ changed Little Pea’s rags into beautiful clothes.

As Little Pea ran to the festival, she dropped one of her shoes and lost it. When the prince found the shoe, he decided to marry the girl who owned it. Of course, the shoe fitted Little Pea. and the prince immediately fell in love with her.
5.a fairy appeared and (5) ________ changed Little Pea’s rags into beautiful clothes.

Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word or phrase.

Children in (1) _____ Netherlands must be at least four years old to (2) _____ primary education. Almost all 4-year-olds (99. 3%) in the country indeed attend primary school, (3) _____ this is not compulsory until children reach the age (4) _____5 . Primary school is free of charge. In most schools, children are grouped by (5) _____ in mixed ability classes, with one teacher for all subjects. Primary school (6) _____ of 8 groups, thus schooling (7) _____ for 8 years. During the first two years, which (8) _____ kindergarten, children receive an average of 22 hours of (9) _____, during the last 6 years children receive an average of 25 hours per week. Schools are open 5 days a week, but children are free on Wednesday afternoon. At the end of primary school, or in group 8, schools advice on secondary school choice. Most schools use a national test to support this advice, for instance the 'Citotoets', a test (10) ____ by the Central Institute for Test development.

(2) _____

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions:
Diversity is a hallmark of life, an intrinsic feature of living systems in the natural world. The demonstration and celebration of this diversity is an endless rite. Look at the popularity of museums, zoos, aquariums and botanic gardens. The odder the exhibit, the more different it is from the most common and familiar life forms around us, the more successful it is likely to be. Nature does not tire of providing oddities for people who look for them. Biologists have already formally classified 1.7 million species. As many as 30 to 40 million more may remain to be classified. (1)
Most people seem to take diversity for granted. If they think about it at all they assume it exists in endless supply. Nevertheless, diversity is endangered as never before in its history. Advocates of perpetual economic growth treat living species as expendable. As a result an extinction crisis of unprecedented magnitude is under way. Worse yet, when diversity needs help most, it is neglected and misunderstood by much of the scientific community that once championed it. (2)
Of the two great challenges to the legitimacy of this diversity, the familiar one comes primarily from economists. Their argument, associated with such names as Julian Simon, Malcolm McPherson and the late Herman Kahn, can be paraphrased: "First, if endangered species have a value as resources - which has been greatly exaggerated - then we should be able to quantify that value so that we can make unbiased, objective decisions about which species, if any, we should bother to save, and how much the effort is worth. Secondly, the global threat to the diversity of species, particularly in the tropics, has been overestimated. Thirdly, we have good substitutes for the species and ecosystems that are being lost, and these substitutes will nullify the damage caused by the extinctions". (3)
The structure of the argument seems to me to be identical in form to that of an old joke from the American vaudeville circuit. One elderly lady complained to another about her recent vacation at a resort in the Catskill Mountains in New York State. "The food was terrible", she moaned. "Pure poison, I couldn't eat a bite. And the portions were so tiny!" (4)
Species may be valuable, but not especially so, and the threat to them has been exaggerated. But this does not matter anyway, say the economists, because we can replace any species that vanishes.(5) 
It is not clear how much of an impact this argument has on the informed public, but it has certainly provoked an outcry among scientific conservationists. It has set the terms for, and dominated, most of the pro-diversity literature of the past few years, making it a literature of response, thus limiting its scope and creative force.

The position of the scientific conservationists has been weakened because they have

Choose the best answer:
Robots in factories will be able to do everything the workers do, __________ robots will make them jobless.

A spokesperson for Brenda Amon ---139--- that the pianist made a sizeable donation toward the expansion of the Grenel City Conservatory of Music. "Without her generous  support,"  said  Marc Diaz, director of facility planning, "we would have  been  limited  in  our  renovation  plans  going forward."---140---. Now, a new wing will be constructed on the south end of the ---141--- conservatory. Once completed, the building will boast a 700-seat auditorium, state-of-the-art recording studios, and new faculty and administrative offices. Additionally, private practice rooms will be located
---142--- the current student lounge.

139.................